A.A. Hodge’s Conditional Offer of the Gospel

According to Dr. Curt Daniel, heretic A.A. Hodge succeeded his father Charles Hodge to the chair of systematic theology from 1877 to 1886. Some notable books are his Outlines of Theology (a systematic theology set forth in questions and answers), The Atonement, and a biography of his father.

In blue are quotes from A.A. Hodge’s Outlines of Theology, pp. 419-421. My comments are in black. 

“22. If Christ died only for His own people, on what grounds does the general offer or the gospel rest? The Lord Jesus, in order to secure the salvation of his people, and with a specific view to that end, fulfilled the condition of the law or covenant under which they and all mankind were placed. These conditions were (1) perfect obedience (2) satisfaction to divine justice. Christ's righteousness, therefore, consists of his obedience and death.”

These are the sole conditions for salvation. These conditions that Hodge mentions above are obviously conditions that the sinner cannot meet or be enabled by God to meet. Faith is not an instrumental condition, rather faith believes that Christ met in full these aforementioned conditions (i.e., faith believes that Christ is the end of the law for righteousness; Romans 10:1-4). And since Hodge believes that Christ removed these legal impediments out of the way of all men without exception, he does NOT believe that Christ is the end of the law for righteousness. Hodge does not believe that Christ's obedience and death is enough to save. Hodge does not believe that the obedience and death of Christ demands and ensures the salvation of all whom He represented. Hodge denies that Christ made satisfaction to divine justice for all whom He represented. For if according to Hodge, Christ made satisfaction to divine justice, then what are sinners doing in hell for whom Christ died?

“That righteousness is precisely what the law demands of every sinner in order to justification before God.”

Correct. A perfect righteousness that answers the demands of God's law and justice. This righteousness is what Hodge mentioned above: (1) perfect obedience; (2) satisfaction to divine justice. Again, these are the sole conditions for justification before God. Faith is a free gift from God to His people (Ephesians 2:8-9) and faith believes that Christ's death demands the salvation of all whom He represented at the cross. Justice demands the salvation of His people. That is Christ's reward; the reward of His sufferings.

That is, as respects those for whom He died it is an act of free grace, but as respects Christ it is a matter of justice regarding the fruits of the travail of His soul, the rewards of His sufferings.  


“It is, therefore, in its nature adapted to all sinners who were under that law.  Its nature is not altered by the fact that it was wrought out for a portion only of such sinners, or that it is secured to them by the covenant between the Father and the Son.  What is necessary for the salvation of one man is necessary for the salvation of another and of all.  It is also of infinite value, being the righteousness of the eternal Son of God, and therefore sufficient for all.”
Now, it is true that a righteousness that answers the demands of God's law and justice is needed by all without exception since all without exception are by nature without this righteousness. BUT it is by no means "in its nature adapted to all sinners who were under that law" since Christ was not representing ALL sinners who were under that law, but only SOME of the sinners who were under that law. 

“A bona fide offer of the gospel, therefore, is to be made to all men.” 
God commands all men to believe, and those who believe will be justified from all things from which they could not be justified by the Law of Moses: 

"Then let it be known to you, men, brothers, that through this One remission of sin is announced to you. And everyone believing in this One is justified from all things which you could not be justified by the Law of Moses. Then watch that the thing spoken in the Prophets may not come on you: 'Behold, you despisers,' 'and marvel,' 'and perish, because I work a work in your days,' a work which you would 'in no way believe if anyone declares it to you'" (Acts 13:38-41). 

Hodge continues: 

“1st. Because the satisfaction rendered to the law is sufficient for all men.  2d. Because it is exactly adapted to the redemption of all.  3d. Because God designs that whosoever exercises faith in Christ shall be saved by him.  Thus the atonement makes the salvation of every man to whom it is offered objectively possible.”
But in the GHC (Genuine Historical Calvinist) paradigm God does NOT design that all who hear will be given faith. So all this talk by Hodge of a sufficient satisfaction to the law for all (which includes the reprobate, the Judases in the audience) are just empty, vain, hypocritical words.

How does Hodge's dualistic view of the atonement make the salvation of every man to whom it is offered "objectively possible"? That's so bogus; for the GHC dualistic view says that God does NOT intend to save all, does NOT intend to give the reprobate faith. According to A.A. Hodge, the salvation of Judas was "objectively possible." Yeah right. Hodge's own theology (his own soteriological view) will NOT allow that. For, according to Hodge, God did NOT intend to save nor give Judas the necessary faith.

So, for A.A. Hodge, "God designs that whosoever exercises faith in Christ shall be saved by him" and "the atonement makes the salvation of every man to whom it is offered objectively possible." But ALSO for Hodge, God does NOT design that every man to whom it is offered shall be given faith, and thus if Hodge were *consistent with his own premises* he would have to deny his "objectively possible" conclusion. 

“The design of Christ's death being to secure the salvation of his own people, incidentally to the accomplishment of that end, it comprehends the offer of that salvation freely and honestly to all men on the condition of their faith.  No man is lost for the want of an atonement, or because there is any other barrier in the way of his salvation than his own most free and wicked will."
Once again Hodge, on your own terms it is so clearly NOT honestly offered "on the condition of their faith." God will not give them all faith. Not endorsing John Owen here, but this is promising a blind man a pile of gold on condition that he will see this gold. How is Hodge not mocking and putting a stumbling block before the reprobate blind with this so-called "honest" offer?

Hodge says that "[n]o man is lost for the want of an atonement, or because there is any other barrier in the way of his salvation than his own most free and wicked will." An Arminian would say the exact same thing. But the Arminian would be honest in this, while Hodge would omit the fact that according to his theology, the other, additional barrier in the way is that God will not give the non-elect the necessary faith. So, according to Hodge's theology it is not just the allegedly "most free and wicked will" of the sinner. 

“23. How can the condemnation of men for the rejection of Christ be reconciled with the doctrine that Christ died for the elect only? A salvation all-sufficient and exactly adapted to his necessities is honestly offered to every man to whom the gospel comes; and in every case it is his, if he believes; and in no case does any thing prevent his believing other than his own evil disposition.  Evidently he is in no way concerned with the design of God in providing that salvation beyond the assurance that God intends to give it to him if he believes.  If a man is responsible for a bad heart, and the exercises thereof, he must be above all worthy of condemnation for rejecting such a Saviour.”

Genuine Historical Calvinism teaches that salvation is honestly offered to the Judas' of the world even though they also say that God refuses (for wise and holy purposes) to give said Judas' the necessary faith. They would then say, as Hodge says, that the Judas' of the world are not to be concerned with the design (or intention) of God in salvation or whether or not they are the one's faith will be withheld from. And since in reality they would not even know if they are Judas' or not, it is enough for them to know that God intends to save them if they believe. This is how the Genuine Historical Calvinistic argument goes.

The GHC objects to the Biblical teaching that God actively hardens the Judas' of the world by the command to believe in the gospel of Jesus Christ. They call it "Divine hypocrisy" for God to not intend salvation to those whom He commands to believe in Christ for salvation. But they are engaging in a hypocritical double standard. For according to their heretical conditionalism God intends to save IF one believes and they also believe that God does NOT intend salvation to those whom He commands to believe in Christ for salvation. The reason why they say that their view is not "Divine hypocrisy" while the Biblical view is, is because they believe that Judas' only concern should be that God intends to save those who meet the condition of faith. Well, the Biblical position is NOT that faith is a condition for salvation, but that faith believes that Christ met the strict, unwavering demands of God's law and justice for His peoples' salvation. Further, the Biblical position is that an unregenerate person who is called upon to repent and believe the gospel is not to use God's hardening of the reprobate as an excuse not to believe the gospel; but ought to be aware of the fact that God intends to save those who believe the gospel. One (among many) fundamental difference between the Biblical view and the heretical GHC view is that in the GHC view faith is a condition for salvation, and so faith results in salvation; whereas in the Biblical view, Christ's perfect obedience and propitiatory blood is the sole condition for salvation, and so salvation results in faith. 

 “24. On what principles are those texts to be explained which speak of Christ's bearing the sins of the WORLD, and of his dying for ALL? These are such passages as Heb. ii. 9; 1 Cor. xv. 22; 1 John ii. 2; 1 Tim. ii. 6; John i. 29; iii. 16, 17; vi. 51.  These terms, ‘world’ and ‘all,’ are unquestionably used in very various degrees of latitude in the Scriptures.  In many passages that latitude is evidently limited by the context, e.g., 1 Cor. xv. 22; Rom. v. 18; viii. 32; John xii. 32; Eph. i. 10; Col. i. 20; 2 Cor. v. 14, 15.  In others the word "world" is opposed to the Jewish nation as a people of exclusive privileges.--Rom. xi. 12, 15; 1 John ii. 2.  It is evident that statements as to the design of Christ's death, involving such general terms, must be defined by the more definite ones above exhibited.  Sometimes this general form of statement is used to give prominence to the fact that Christ, being a single victim, by one sacrifice atoned for so many.--Compare Matt. xx. 28, with 1 Tim. ii. 6, and Heb. ix. 28.  And although Christ did not die with the design of saving all, yet he did suffer the penalty of that law under which all were placed, and he does offer the righteousness thus wrought out to all.”

The standout antichristian Satanic statement is this: 

"And although Christ did not die with the design of saving all, yet he did suffer the penalty of that law under which all were placed, and he does offer the righteousness thus wrought out to all."

Romans 6:23 says that the wages of sin is death. The penalty of the law says that the sinner must die. Jesus tasted this penalty of law:

"...but we do see Jesus crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death was made a little less than the angels, so that by the grace of God He might taste of death for all" (Hebrews 2:9).


To taste death is to propitiate the wrath (to drink damnation dry) of God: 

"For this reason He ought by all means to become like His brothers, that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the things respecting God, in order to make propitiation for the sins of His people" (Hebrews 2:17). 

For Hodge, Christ did not die with the design of propitiating for all without exception, yet he (supposedly) did suffer the penalty of wrath for all without exception, and he (supposedly) does offer this "propitiation" to all without exception. In Hodge's Satanic scheming, whose work is it that is actually doing the propitiating? In Hebrews 2:17, Christ actually makes propitiation for the sins of His people. In Hodgian 2:17, the sinner actually makes propitiation for his own sins, since the Hodgian christ suffered death for all (propitiated for all), and yet not all have their sins actually propitiated.